Descartes argues that because he thinks, (he wonders, he has conscious experience) he must exist as a thinking self. Hume answers that Descartes is not even entitled to this. Why is the existence of the self not in question? In other words, Hume argues that to say that there is such a thing as the self we must have an impression of it. But when we introspect, we find a multitude of thoughts, feelings, sensations, and more, but not a discernible self that we can point to. It is logically possible, Hume suggests, that instead of selves in the world there might be bundles of perceptions, i.e., a concentration of mental experiences without any specific essence. Do you agree with Hume? Explain. Moreover, how do you think Descartes would respond to Humes suggestion?
Write a 1000-word paper (roughly 4 pages) that addresses the above questions. Be sure to be as thorough as you can; and as usual, write your response in such a fashion as to be understandable by anyone who has never taken philosophy.
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Please try to avoid citing books as i have no way to prove that ive read them.